Wednesday, March 24, 2010

Conjectures and Refutations

Well well well ... With great joy I have witnessed the beginning of a lively discussion between two sharp minds ... Avid, wise as he is, has joined me at the Platonic camp, while Hassaan, brave as he is, has opted for another route.. The discussion has now reached at a point at which I deem it to be necessary to intervene… I am thankful that my initial view has been the object of mild criticism, for it allows me to respond to these conjectures, thereby introducing further substantiation for my Platonic account of epistemology.

Before I start off… Well done (Hassaan) for mentioning the curvature of space-time, an implicit consequence of the gravitational red shift, both results of the postulates of the theory of general relativity that Einstein introduced at the beginning of the last century… Yet, you ought to be careful not to draw flamboyant generalizations from your watch inference… I maintain that the curvature of space-time does not render the concept of time redundant… Even if we buy your argument about the absence of time as an inevitable consequence of the curvature of space-time (which I am not), it is another big (too big, I believe) step to infer the concurrence of past, present and future from the absence of that very principle… I can elaborate on that if you want (In fact, Avid mentioned a couple of interesting objections to your view in his concluding paragraph that I very much comply with), but I shall now proceed to the core of my argument… (In case you are interested I highly recommend to read upon Ernst Mach, the character who provided the philosophical framework for both the special and general theory of relativity, being amongst the main factors that led Einstein to discover the necessity for the speed of light to be absolute (first famously at the age of 16 in his immortal thought experiment concerning a beam of light))

Now, Hassaan, you do link together some great ideas and concepts, yet you present them in a logical order (provided there is one), that makes it extremely hard to follow your line of argumentation. You clearly do take a Humian stance at one point, for you disagree that the realization of the missing shade of blue does require some form of a priori knowledge about the missing shade…. (Hassaan: “the point i was trying to make, forgive me if i failed, was that his ability to recognize the missing colour does not stem from the meno or from a priori knowledge... “)

You then go on and contradict Hume by arguing that he is wrong to regard his example of the realization about the missing shade of blue as being unimportant (Hassaan: “Hume, our friend also said that this type of our event shouldnt call on us to edit our general maxim or whatever. in fact. it should bloody edit our thinking. what he did was give an example of a man and some colours and he didnt realize that he was actually describing something quite important..” )

I am sure you are aware that it does considerably weaken your argument if you start to disagree with what you’re defending half way through… Yet, I do not want to attack your line of reasoning by virtue of appealing to the inconsistency within your argument (although I could, and effectively already did, but I stop here cause I’m nice).... NO! I aim to take on the underlying principle behind your argument (I take it from what I have read that you are proposing some sort of empirical argument (Hume) about epistemology… (Which you ought to be if you disagree about the necessity of the man to resort to knowledge of the forms as a means to derive at his knowledge about the missing shade of blue))

NOW, listen up EVERY1! What the whole discussion essentially boils down to is the conflicting beliefs about the ontology of laws of nature… WHY? Because that’s were Hume and Plato fundamentally disagreed … According to PLATO, laws of nature (such as the first and second law of thermodynamics) DO exist! They PRESCRIBE the way nature OUGHT to be. A law dictates the way in which objects MUST behave!

According to HUME, all that there is are RECURRING PATTERNS within nature, merely describing empirical regularities… As we saw last week, he famously argued that we cannot infer laws of nature from these empirical regularities (as the problem of induction has shown)…

Do make sure you understand that distinction, for what I am about to tell you will not make a great deal of sense otherwise…

In modern debates within the philosophy of science, these two schools of thought are generally referred to as the Regularists (those who believe in Hume’s argument), and the Necessitarians (those who go with Plato).

On the Necessitarians account, there is something MORE to a physically impossible event’s non occurrence and something MORE to a physically impossible state of affair’s non existence. What is physically impossible is not merely non-occurent or nonexistent. These events and states of affairs simply COULD NOT occur or exist (this is what is often referred to as “nomological” or “nomic” necessity (ancient Greek “nomos” for law)).

In Contrast, when Regularists say that some situation is physically impossible (e.g. particles travelling faster than light), they are NOT making the claim that there could not be such a situation. They are making simply the factual claim that there timelessly is no such situation (i.e. the situation is non-occurent or non-existent in past, present and future times).

Why am I making these distinctions? Because it is elemental to understand the general view of both positions in order to fully grasp the major drawbacks of the Regularists account:

Major Drawback Number 1: EXPLANATION! If we long for the explanation of certain phenomena in nature, Regularists can not provide us with a sufficient account as to why certain things ought to behave in a certain way… For example: WHY DO WE DIE? All a regularist could say is that he has witnessed a recurring pattern in nature that has led him to believe that all humans are mortal… He could never rightfully argue that every living being OUGHT to die at some point… Thus, merely DESCRIBING certain phenomena won’t do us any good in the long run..Platonic necessitarians, on the other hand, don’t face these kind of difficulties… Given the notion of necessity, they could rightfully argue that it is physically necessary for humans to behave in such a way… Death, on that account, is not DESCRIPTIVE, but PRESCRIPTIVE!

NOW, Major Drawback Number, wait for it …… 2! INDUCTIVE INFERENCES!You should all be intrigued by that irony…. The person to establish the problem of induction (Hume), now faces the very problem that he has infamously set out to establish, while Me and Plato can (once again) provide for an answer for major drawback number 2…. Brilliant… ANYWAYS…

The problem for the regularist goes as follows: If we can only make factual claims that a certain situation is timelessly not possible, then we will never be allowed to draw inferences from past to future phenomena, for we have no idea of how the future is going to look like… We are not entitled to infer that the next raven will also be black, as we have not yet OBSERVED that raven… Contrarily, Plato does not face that intricacy as he can simply argue that laws express physical necessities between properties…

Those are the common arguments raised against Regularists… And they’re KILLING!!! Recently, Necessitarians, including the philosopher Fred Dretske, have raised even further objections against the Regularist account of epistemology... Yet, outlining those would probably go a step too far (if we haven’t been too far already), as they do require us to have some background in the philosophy of science… (Nevertheless I am happy to elaborate on them for a bit if you wish… Especially because Dretske’s argument is absolutely ingenious in my opinion)


YET, I believe we have reached a point at which we ought to do justice to all the regularists in this world, for I have been so harsh on them so far… THERE IS A METAPHYSICAL PRICE that us necessitarians are compelled to pay if we accept Plato’s argument: we ought to accept THE INEXPLICABILITY OF THE THEORY OF FORMS… One of the greatest necessitarian proponents, D. Armstrong, famously put: “The inexplicability of the necessitation just has to be accepted. Necessitation, the way that one form brings another along with it as Plato puts it in the Phaedo (104d-105) is a primitive, which we are forced to postulate”

For it is so utterly breathtaking, let’s quote Plato’s Phaedo on that occasion: Take a deep breath, now read: “For it seems to me that if anything else is beautiful besides Beauty itself, it is beautiful on account of nothing else than because it partakes of Beauty itself. And I speak in the same way about everything else.”

For those of you who have not quite followed, consider the following example… Helen of Troy is a material particular, who is “tied to” the eternal Form of Beauty in virtue of what Plato calls “partaking”. It is exactly that PARTAKING IN BEAUTY what makes Helen BEAUTIFUL. Thus, particulars have the properties they have because they PARTAKE OF forms, which are those universal properties.

SO….. we slowly do reach the end for today (don’t be too sad, I’ll be back soon)… if you DO actually intent to take anything away from this essay, take the following:

(1) Plato’s realism about universal properties (Forms) is the metaphysical doctrine underpinning the Necessitarian view on laws.

(2) A law of nature is a necessitation relation between universal properties (F-ness necessitates G-ness)

(3)Individual particular instantiations of, say, Boyle’s law (PV = k) “partake” of the special necessitation relation between the universal properties of F-ness = ”having pressure P”, and G-ness = “having volume V”.

(4) There is a price to be paid if we accept Plato’s theory: As Armstrong points out, a little mystery does remain… Yet, I maintain that this is the closest that we can ever get to the truth… And hey, a little mystery injected into our bland daily routine is not too bad I suppose… “The Forms up in heaven are related in a certain way, and as a result, a uniformity is produced on earth. Such a doctrine is extremely mysterious. The mystery is only a little reduced by bringing the Forms to Earth and letting them exist only in their instantiations.”

On another related note: “Western philosophy is a series of footnotes to Plato (Whitehead)”

Yours truly,

IL DIVINO

Monday, March 8, 2010

Plato Meets Hume - The Missing Shade of Blue

What a day Platonic friends! Not only is the sun shining over London for ONCE, NO! I just coincidentally stumbled upon an article on inductive reasoning this morning... And could barely believe what my eyes were perceiving.. My absolute hero, the divine PLATO, has received further substantiation for his theory of recollection from a very unexpected source within the world of philosophical reasoning: David Hume! Hume??? The father of modern day scepticism, the foundation stone of anti realism and the nightmare of any intuitionist or proposer of a priori knowledge embedded within our soul.... Yes! exactly that Hume has conceded for the existence of innate forms of knowledge... That insanely gifted mind that has left me wondering whether all my beliefs and convictions about Plato were all that justified after all... For if Hume wouldn't agree, how could I possibly dare to conflict with his belief, possessing skills of analytical reasoning that are beyond inferiority compared with those of the Scottish genius.. That outmost legend who founded the modern day empiricist tradition (together with Berkeley and Locke)... I could go on to praise him for hours... Yet time and space are limited (only within this entry obviously) So listen to THIS...! You might have come across Hume whilst reading upon the problem of induction, that infamous intricacy that does not allow us to extract true conclusions from any set of premises.. Echoing the ancient dilemma! Even if I was to perceive 100 black ravens, I am by no means entitled to assume that the 101st raven will also be black.. For how can I possibly KNOW that it's not gonna be white...

P1: I have perceived a black raven
P2: I have perceived a black raven
P3: I have perceived a black raven
....
....
....
P100: I have perceived a black raven.

Conclusion: All ravens are black.

Unfortunately NOOOOT; yet nearly all forms of scientific reasoning rely on that exact form of logical analysis you might think... Inductive reasoning... Very much so!! Thus it is a great shame really, that we can never be certain about all these amazing theories and laws, for they have all been derived from experience but not deduction... The reason for this dilemma is HUME! His critique of causality has deprived us from the very possibility to justify such sayings as "knowing for certain, I am sure, I know".. Justified True Belief is BS, as Gettier has shown.. (This is why I have fled to the ancient school of Athens a while ago, desperately trying to provide my Platonic master with new forms evidence, for his theory is the only potential escape from disaster (A bit like Houdini really, which is awesome, because I love Houdini))

Anyways, more on that later, lets focus on Hume in the meanwhile... Imagine a game of Snooker, the type of occasion we all enjoy.. The white ball gets hit by the cue (E1), colliding with another ball (E2), not white but red... the red ball is composed to initiate motion, obviously heavily dependent on the angle and the force of the white ball.. Now, unless you are a sceptic, reaaaally strange or mentally retarded, if I was to ask you why the red ball moved, you would cite the white ball as the origin of that principle known to mankind as motion (since Newton published his Principia in 1678).. Unfortunately Hume belonged to the former category.. What makes matters even worse, HE'S RIGHT.. Hume shows that the only things we can assume are precedence in time, i.e. the fact that the white ball will move before the red one, contiguity in space and constant conjunction... Following on the empiricist line of reasoning, i.e. the school of thought that argues that all knowledge can be derived from experience, Hume demonstrates that there is no perceivable causal glue between these two events, E1 and E2. THEY CAN NOT BE PERCEIVED! The reason why we believe in a causal interaction existent between these two events is not a result of nature but a result of a certain principle within our mind... There is no link between E1 and E2... The outer sentiments are not causally related! I hope you can see how this notorious problem of causation lies at the heart of the problem of induction...

Let's proceed to the connection between Plato and Hume.. As I have tried to outline before, I used to always think that Hume does away with the notion of a priori knowledge (as you would expect by a philosopher who sits at the complete opposite side of the table)... Yet, as I have learned this morning, Hume has contradicted his whole thesis within his "Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding" (commonly regarded as one of the most influential books of all time). What great news! Both me and Plato were weeping tears of joy... (well at least I was, pretty certain Plato was too, he must have been(!?))... The invisible link between these two greatest thinkers of all time is a simple colour.. BLUE.. To be more precise, the missing shade within a certain set of blues... Let's quote the exact passage within Hume's book...

"Suppose a person to have enjoyed his sight for thirty years, and to have become perfectly acquainted with colours of all kinds, except one particular shade of blue, for instance, which it never has been his fortune to meet with. Let all the different shades of that colour, except that single one, be placed before him, descending gradually from the deepest to the lightest; it is plain, that he will perceive a blank, where that shade is wanting, and will be sensible, that there is a greater distance in that place between the contiguous colours than in any other. Now I ask, whether it be possible for him, from his own imagination, to supply this deficiency, and raise up to himself the idea of that particular shade, though it had never been conveyed to him by his senses? I believe there are few but will be of opinion that he can: And this may serve as a proof, that the simple ideas are not always, in every instance, derived from the correspondent impressions; though this instance is so singular, that it is scarcely worth our observing, and does not merit, that for it alone we should alter our general maxim."


So there it is! Hume's concession that there might be such things as innate or a priori knowledge.. The exact thing that Plato has spend teaching all his life: A certain form within our soul that miraculously realizes the laws of nature, the only things that we can rightfully call true! In Hume's example, the man, although he had never experienced the missing shade of blue within all the other different shades, simply knew that there was one shade missing.. Just like the slave boy knew that he had found the solution to a certain problem although he had never done any mathematics before (if you haven't done so, I highly recommend to read upon this within the Socratic dialogue known as "The Meno")... They both had no sensory experience whatsoever, yet they mysteriously knew the answer... The reason, according to Plato, is the recollection of certain forms that exist within our soul from the moment that we were born..

The reason why Hume would suddenly decide to contradict his belief about a priori knowledge remains a mystery.. And I frankly don't care why he did... BUT HE DID!

Sure you are all really excited right now;)... I am more than happy to explain some of the terms I have carelessly rushed over during the course of this little philosophical realization that completely made my day...

Have a good one,

The One and Only, yours truly!

IL DIVINO